But at Matthew 24:3, 27, 37, 39, Matthew used a different word, a noun found nowhere else in the Gospels: pa·rou·siʹa. Since God inspired the writing of the Bible, why did he move Matthew to choose this Greek word in these verses when penning his Gospel in Greek? What does it mean, and why should we want to know?

11. (a) What is the sense of pa·rou·siʹa? (b) How do examples from Josephus’ writing bear out our understanding of pa·rou·siʹa? (See footnote.)

¹¹ Pointedly, pa·rou·siʹa means “presence.” Vine’s Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words says: “PAROUSIA, . . . lit[erally], a presence, para, with, and ousia, being (from eimi, to be), denotes both an arrival and a consequent presence with. For instance, in a papyrus letter a lady speaks of the necessity of her parousia in a place in order to attend to matters relating to her property.” Other lexicons explain that pa·rou·siʹa denotes ‘the visit of a ruler.’ Hence, it is not just the moment of arrival, but a presence extending from the arrival onward. Interestingly, that is how Jewish historian Josephus, a contemporary of the apostles, used pa·rou·siʹa.a

12. How does the Bible itself help us to confirm the meaning of pa·rou·siʹa?

¹² The meaning “presence” is clearly borne out by ancient literature, yet Christians are particularly interested in how God’s Word uses pa·rou·siʹa. The answer is the same—presence. We see that from examples in Paul’s letters. For instance, he wrote to the Philippians: “In the way that you have always obeyed, not during my presence only, but now much more readily during my absence, keep working out your own salvation.” He also spoke of abiding with them that they might exult “through [his] presence [pa·rou·siʹa] again with [them].” (Philippians 1:25, 26; 2:12) Other versions read “my being with you again” (Weymouth; New International Version); “when I am with you again” (Jerusalem Bible; New English Bible); and “when you once more have me among you.” (Twentieth Century New Testament) At 2 Corinthians 10:10, 11, Paul contrasted “his presence in person” with being “absent.” In these examples he plainly was not speaking of his approach or arrival; he used pa·rou·siʹa in the sense of being present.b (Compare 1 Corinthians 16:17.) What, though, about references to Jesus’ pa·rou·siʹa? Are they with the sense of his “coming,” or do they indicate an extended presence?

13, 14. (a) Why must we conclude that a pa·rou·siʹa extends over time? (b) What must be said about the length of Jesus’ pa·rou·siʹa?

¹³ Spirit-anointed Christians in Paul’s day were interested in Jesus’ pa·rou·siʹa. But Paul warned them not to be ‘shaken from their reason.’ First there must appear “the man of lawlessness,” which has proved to be the clergy of Christendom. Paul wrote that “the lawless one’s presence is according to the operation of Satan with every powerful work and lying signs.” (2 Thessalonians 2:2, 3, 9) Plainly, the pa·rou·siʹa, or presence, of “the man of lawlessness” was not just a momentary arrival; it would extend over time, during which lying signs would be produced. Why is this significant?

¹⁴ Consider the verse immediately before that: “The lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will do away with by the spirit of his mouth and bring to nothing by the manifestation of his presence.” Just as the presence of “the man of lawlessness” would be over a period of time, Jesus’ presence would extend for some time and would climax in the destruction of that lawless “son of destruction.”—2 Thessalonians 2:8.